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Edit: I have understood the problem. Thank you.

^[1]

From the comparison you have made, it can be seen that particle in a box and free particle have the same energy at certain wavenumbers.

I know that the wavefunctions of the two entities are different, but if we can do the correlation, it seems as if the free particle becomes a particle in a box.

Is that a possibility, even though these particles have opposite character.

In 1 dimension, is the energy dependence on k always k^2, can you give a small comment on that.

Gud16 (talk) 11:33, 5 October 2020 (UTC)[reply]

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